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Re: [ontolog-forum] Current Semantic Web Layer pizza (was ckae)

To: "[ontolog-forum] " <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
From: "Obrst, Leo J." <lobrst@xxxxxxxxx>
Date: Thu, 6 Sep 2007 15:44:55 -0400
Message-id: <9F771CF826DE9A42B548A08D90EDEA80024D0B6B@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Nosing into the rat hole just a bit:    (01)

In linguistics, under some analyses, negation also brings up a notion
of scale. Let's just focus on linear scale. Not happy <--> happy. But
in many languages, in addition, there are distinctions between
syntactic forms ("not happy", "happy") and lexical/morphological forms
("unhappy"). In many cases, lexical/morphological forms (one can think
of these as kind of "compiled" syntax) have a different entailment,
i.e., not the polar opposite, but rather like a something that takes
into account the scale. So "unhappy" does not mean "not happy", but
something like "somewhere on the happiness scale just off of "happy"":    (02)

not happy <----------------------------> happy
unhappy:  |---------------------------|    (03)

So the lexicalized form seems to "negate" the point on the scale,
returning as value the (scale - that point).     (04)

Leo    (05)

>-----Original Message-----
>From: ontolog-forum-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
>[mailto:ontolog-forum-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of 
>Duane Nickull
>Sent: Thursday, September 06, 2007 12:17 PM
>To: [ontolog-forum] edbark@xxxxxxxx,
>Subject: Re: [ontolog-forum] Current Semantic Web Layer pizza 
>(was ckae)
>Here we embark on yet another rat hole ;-)
>On 9/6/07 8:57 AM, "Ed Barkmeyer" <edbark@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
>> My notion of "opposite" with respect to a proposition p is "not
>> p".  I was unaware that this was "vague" or "ambiguous".  There
>> is no relationship, in general, between (all x)(p x) and
>> (all x)(not (p x))
>DN: In the commons, there are accepted things that people 
>generally agree
>are opposite.  White and black are examples but if you really 
>think about
>it, it is harder to explain why they are opposite without 
>resorting to some
>contextual background such as an overall RGB spectrum. Are 
>dark and light,
>as perceived by the human senses, truly opposite or just the absence
>certain frequencies of light in the overall spectrum?  If 
>infra red is still
>working in the dark, how can dark be classified as opposite or light.
>There are of course many examples that are truly opposite.  
>No-yes, right,
>left, up down.
>"Speaking only for myself"
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>    (06)

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