All:
I think that “part” is simply too vague here. Suggest using a formal mereotopology to more accurately define the relationship. SUMO anyone?
D
On 3/25/09 4:51 PM, "Mike Bennett" <mbennett@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Not if "in the same sense" is given the formal definition of "has the
same DNA as".
Of course it may be given another formal definition, e.g. "is enclosed by".
You can't say "in the same sense" without expressing some idea of what
that sense is. Your statement seems to assume that a sense which exists
in your mind and seems obvious to you, can be the single and only sense
that may exist. It is not.
Mike
Richard H. McCullough wrote:
> Chris
>
> You're throwing emotional issues into the discussion.
> I'm only talking about the definition of a "part".
> The fetus is a part of the mother, in the same sense
> that a kidney is a part of the mother.
>
> Dick
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Chris Menzel" <cmenzel@xxxxxxxx>
> To: "[ontolog-forum] " <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> Sent: Wednesday, March 25, 2009 3:03 PM
> Subject: Re: [ontolog-forum] An Ontology Modeling Different Age Groups
>
>
>
>> On Wed, 25 Mar 2009, Richard H. McCullough wrote:
>>
>>> From the viewpoint of metaphysics/epistemology, a fetus is not a human
>>> being, it is a part of a human being (the mother).
>>>
>> Among philosophers, medical ethicists, etc, this is an entirely open and
>> controversial question.
>>
>>
>>> After birth, it is a human being (the newborn).
>>>
>> Are you proposing that we become human beings only after birth? Not
>> that I'm interested in arguing the point, but that proposal is obviously
>> false.
>>
>> -chris
>>
>
>
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