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Re: [ontolog-forum] Can Syntax become Semantic ?

To: "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
From: Phani Chaitanya <vsr.phanichaitanya@xxxxxxxxx>
Date: Fri, 22 Jan 2010 11:27:13 +0530
Message-id: <24c45d421001212157o12dc34a9p6872b88aff249524@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>

On Fri, Jan 22, 2010 at 11:14 AM, Randall R Schulz <rschulz@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Thursday January 21 2010, Phani Chaitanya wrote:
> ...
> Hi Randall,
> Thanks for that. Now I get the issue that is addressed by Semantic
> Web. But I would like to know what does "The idea is to
> make the semantic content explicit and unambiguous" mean here. I
> mean, semantic content as in what ?

Whaddya' got?

That question is very much like asking what can be stored in a
relational database system.

Randall Schulz

I mis-understood the notion of semantics. I thought that Semantic Web is trying to address the semantics present in the language. But did not understand how are they going to get that from RDF etc. You told me that they are some universal format. But my question was what do you mean making the semantic content explicit (Just by making the databases explicit, what can users do ?).

If I search for something like "flights from Spain to England" in the Semantic Web, what is the output. Is it not something like google outputs ?. I want to know about that. That's why I'm asking you all to quote an example.

Phani Chaitanya

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