To: | "[ontolog-forum] " <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
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Cc: | James Leigh <james-nospam@xxxxxxxxxxx>, SW-forum <semantic-web@xxxxxx>, "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
From: | Pat Hayes <phayes@xxxxxxx> |
Date: | Tue, 9 Sep 2008 12:16:09 -0500 |
Message-id: | <p06240800c4ec5717b6ec@[10.100.0.140]> |
At 2:35 PM -0700 9/8/08, Michael F Uschold wrote:
Azamat said:
Whatever you choose to call these things, I find the following distinctions helpful: I don't find them helpful. They embody and give credence to
several common errors; they do not conform to established usages that
go back half a century or more; and they aren't properly
defined.
The names I find most useful for these things are (substituting into the text above) What do you mean here by 'universe of discourse'? That sounds
like a semantic term. A semantic universe of discourse can be very
small, e.g. {A} is a possible universe of discourse.
2. Does that exclude the empty set/class? (I hope not.) And do the
members have to be individuals, or can they also include classes? As
stated, this seems to exclude METACLASS, whose elements don't have
individuals as members. I presume you did not intend this,
though.
3. But not including the empty set/class, I presume.
4. It might be worth remarking that your 'ORDINARYCLASS' and
'METACLASS' classifications are not recognized by set theory, and seem
to have no purpose that I can determine; that the distinction between
them isn't exhaustive, since it omits the (common) case of a set
containing both sets and non-sets; and that it has been shown quite
rigorously that if set theory is consistent at all, then it is also
consistent to assume that there are no INDIVIDUALs in the above sense,
i.e. that everything can be treated as a class.
More importantly, the term "individual" as used in
logic does not have anything like this meaning: it simply means
anything in the universe of discourse, i.e. anything that one is
quantifying over. This may include classes, of course, just as it may
include anything else. Logical individuals can be any kind of thing:
the term does not act there as a classifier. It is therefore very
misleading and confusing to treat it as one, as you do here. Looked at
from a logical point of view, it seems crazy to single out lack of one
particular relation as being a defining characteristic for
individual-hood. Why choose lack of class-membership? Why not say that
anything that isn't married is an INDIVIDUAL, or anything that doesn't
have more than three parts, or ...?
The recognized term in set theory for INDIVIDUALs in your sense
is 'ur-elements', from the German "urelemente". Maybe we
could call them "irreducible individuals" or some such
formulation, to avoid this (recurrent and exasperating) confusion? Or
simply NON-CLASS ?
Here is the class hierarchy: Um... it's not a hierarchy.
CLASS (the most general class) ORDINARYCLASS INDIVIDUAL (the top of the ordinary class hierarchy) This is a horribly misleading mis-use of a widely used, almost
universal, nomenclature. Why screw up a terminology that has worked
well for 50 years? Its not even the terminology that is used in set
theory itself, which (unlike logic) actually deals with these
distinctions.
INDIVIDUAL and CLASS form a partition of THING ORDINARYCLASS and METACLASS form a partition of CLASS No, they most definitely don't. If A is an individual then {A,
{A}} isn't either ordinary or meta.
Pat
THING and CLASS have all of the five things below as members:
ORDINARYCLASS has members:
METACLASS has members:
INDIVIDUAL has members that are inherited from any of its subclasses (e.g. individual persons, or companies, or drugs, depending on the domain). Michael On Thu, Aug 28, 2008 at 12:58 AM, Azamat <abdoul@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
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