To: | "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
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From: | William Frank <williamf.frank@xxxxxxxxx> |
Date: | Fri, 12 Dec 2014 22:08:22 -0500 |
Message-id: | <CALuUwtBcwfbmAHyNS0xV5bitFHy20=ey5L8J+qiM+U2MVmFXsw@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
Yup, inverse is more common in broader contexts, from which I think that OWL etc. get their usage. For example, in traditional linquistics, tthe relations father of and son of, buyer, seller, are called 'inverse.' This sort of follows the terminology of logic, in which the inverse of 'if p then q' is i'f q then p.' similarly, in function theory, the inverse of a function from domain D to range R is the other way around, the equivelent mapping back from Domain R to range D, which might not be a function, of course. I would vote to follow these traditions and say inverse. While there is always an equivelent relation in the inverse direction for a function, this is something that has to be discovered, and in some languages, their will only be, for some so I do not think it is a good practice to dismiss the distinction as two ways of saying the very same thing. There could be interesting things about the language hidden in the fact that sometimes there are two ways of saying it, sometimes only one. And, of course, sometimes there is a navigatibility build into the situation. But both will work, because while the logical converse of 'if p then q' is 'if not p then not q,' this is equivelent to the inverse, 'if q then p,' so inverse and converse are logically equivelent. On Fri, Dec 12, 2014 at 6:01 PM, Duane Nickull <duane.nickull@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
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