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Re: [ontolog-forum] Ontology, Information Models and the 'Real World': C

To: "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
From: Ingvar Johansson <ingvar.johansson@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Date: Fri, 01 Jun 2007 09:35:26 +0200
Message-id: <465FCC3E.9050009@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Waclaw Kusnierczyk schrieb:
> If this does not make sense to you (which I believe is quite possible), 
> I won't come, I am afraid, with a much better version.
>       (01)

Everything makes sense, very much sense; and I have no further questions 
:-)    (02)

> I think your 'sentence meaning' and 'used sentence meaning' could be 
> somehow attached here, but I am not sure how (and if), and I am not very 
> much convinced it is necessary.
>       (03)

It can, whether or not it is necessary I am not the man to tell. 
According to Pat, it is definitely not necessary in relation to IKL. He 
says in one of his mails: "any discussion of propositions in English is 
really beside the point for IKL". My distinction - whose background 
question is "how to individuate propositions in e.g. English?" - can 
easily be applied to your example. It means that the sentence 'no roses 
are blue now' cannot be used to individuate a proposition in ordinary 
English. Nonetheless, all utterances of the sentence have something in 
common, call this its 'sentence meaning'. When such a sentence meaning 
is used to assert something, the 'used sentence meaning' expresses a 
proposition.    (04)

As far as I am concerned, I am pretty  happy with what my question "what 
is a proposition?" has led to. Here comes a new question, one that I 
guess different logicians have different answers to. But I would be 
happy merely to get an overview of some possible positions. Here comes 
the question (X is meant to be a variable for constructions such as FOL):     (05)

"For which parts (X) of formal logic does it hold true: 'any discussion 
of propositions in English is really beside the point for X'?    (06)

all the best,
Ingvar    (07)

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