Waclaw Kusnierczyk schrieb:
> If this does not make sense to you (which I believe is quite possible),
> I won't come, I am afraid, with a much better version.
> (01)
Everything makes sense, very much sense; and I have no further questions
:-) (02)
> I think your 'sentence meaning' and 'used sentence meaning' could be
> somehow attached here, but I am not sure how (and if), and I am not very
> much convinced it is necessary.
> (03)
It can, whether or not it is necessary I am not the man to tell.
According to Pat, it is definitely not necessary in relation to IKL. He
says in one of his mails: "any discussion of propositions in English is
really beside the point for IKL". My distinction - whose background
question is "how to individuate propositions in e.g. English?" - can
easily be applied to your example. It means that the sentence 'no roses
are blue now' cannot be used to individuate a proposition in ordinary
English. Nonetheless, all utterances of the sentence have something in
common, call this its 'sentence meaning'. When such a sentence meaning
is used to assert something, the 'used sentence meaning' expresses a
proposition. (04)
As far as I am concerned, I am pretty happy with what my question "what
is a proposition?" has led to. Here comes a new question, one that I
guess different logicians have different answers to. But I would be
happy merely to get an overview of some possible positions. Here comes
the question (X is meant to be a variable for constructions such as FOL): (05)
"For which parts (X) of formal logic does it hold true: 'any discussion
of propositions in English is really beside the point for X'? (06)
all the best,
Ingvar (07)
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