|To:||OpenOntologyRepository-discussion <oor-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, "Obrst, Leo J." <lobrst@xxxxxxxxx>, Christopher Menzel <cmenzel@xxxxxxxx>|
|From:||Ali SH <asaegyn+out@xxxxxxxxx>|
|Date:||Tue, 18 Oct 2011 16:06:12 -0400|
Dear Leo and Chris,|
Thanks for the responses. I understand the distinction between an inference rule and an axiom, the issue for me stems from a terminological confusion, because obviously, an axiom can express a rule (not in the same sense as an inference rule; i.e. if X is an employee then Y assigns X an employee number).
That said, your interpretation of rule poses an interesting question, do people distinguish an ontology from an ontology + whatever inference rules used to interpret it? Based on analogy then, does gmail as software refer to the gmail the source code, or gmail the compiled, deployed code?
When people refer to an ontology (or an ontology artifact), are they referring singularly to (a) the axioms, or (b) the axioms under deductive closure, or (c) the axioms in combination(s) with reasoner(s)?
I'd be curious to hear from Todd (or others who distinguish between ontologies with and without rules) which sense of rule they refer to. In my conversations with people, I don't believe they are referring to "inference rule" when they distinguish between ontologies as not having rules and some system that also has rules.
When people say that X doesn't have rules, do they mean that it can't express something like (from wiki on RIF)
IF MARRIED(?x, ?y) THEN LOVES(?x, ?y)
or that the processing of the rule isn't part of the ontology?
On Tue, Oct 18, 2011 at 3:38 PM, Christopher Menzel <cmenzel@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
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