To: | "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
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From: | William Frank <williamf.frank@xxxxxxxxx> |
Date: | Mon, 7 Jan 2013 10:01:04 -0500 |
Message-id: | <CALuUwtD3Mja7EhsE48agM-AQWUbJMunRyDhYJM26yhMSf0P-cw@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> |
I too do not understand what 'computationally complete' could mean, aside from decideable. There are two different senses of 'completeness' in the worlds of logic and model theory. 1. a LOGIC L consisting of a language, L, a deductive system D, and a theory of valid entailment E, is complete iff every valid consequence according to E can be proved by a correct deduction in D. (the 'weak completeness' variation on this is not useful for much). 2. an AXIOMATIC THEORY T, with axioms A, expressed in language L of the logic L is complete iff for every statement S in language L S is a valid consequence of the axioms A, or (not S) is a valid consequence of the axioms A Mixing these up has lead to several miscommunications in this forum. The are often mixed up because so many lesser teachers of mathematics and computer science adopt the formalist school in which logical theories are not distinquished from the mathematical and scientific theories that can be built on them; they are all 'just' 'formal systems'. Fortunately, that stance is not practical in ontology work, which all depends on having a knowledge representation scheme (a logic L) before we make any ontological statements in L. one might use the _expression_ 'deductively complete' to make clear that one was talking about the completeness of a logic, focussed as it is on the logics deductive system. Wm
On Mon, Jan 7, 2013 at 7:17 AM, Michael Brunnbauer <brunni@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
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